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Click here 👆 to get an answer to your question ️ If x= √(p2q) √(p2q) / √(p2q) √(p2q) then show that qx 2 px q = 0 ncheresavika7Sarina ncheresavika7SarinaMultiplying the bottom equation by 8 and subtracting the first from the second we get 16p p q q = 1 3 , thus 15 p = 4 and p = 4/15 Using the first equation we find q = p 3 = \frac {4} {15} 3 = \frac {49} {15} It's a lot uglier than what you got, but it would be interesting to know whether this reading into the questionP(q(x)) p ( q ( x)) Evaluate p(q(x)) p ( q ( x)) by substituting in the value of q q into p p p(2x−1) = −2(2x−1) 1 p ( 2 x 1) = 2 ( 2 x 1) 1 Simplify each term Tap for more steps Apply the distributive property p ( 2 x − 1) = − 2 ( 2 x) − 2 ⋅ − 1 1 p ( 2 x 1) = 2 ( 2 x) 2 ⋅
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